Nig-nog, and insults
jon_p_noble at yahoo.com
Thu Nov 6 17:16:25 EST 2003
--- Charles Butler
<hannibal at thegates.fsbusiness.co.uk> wrote:
> > Why is 'negro' not allowable any more? Is it
> derogatory? And if it is,
> > hispanic and is caucasian?
> I'm sure I've heard recently that the preferred term
> for hispanic in the US
> is now Latino.
> Anyway, why are Caucasians called that? Anyone know?
> Is it something to do
> with the misty depths of Indo-European history?
It comes from those 19th century racial origin
theories when it was believed that the Indo-European
peoples originated in the caucasian mountains and that
this was the origin of the "white" races. Aryan was
also a term used for the same peoples which is now as
un-PC as it is possible to get. Not all traditional
European populations are Indo-European, and a large
part of the population of India and Pakistan are
Indo-European (and are also part of the Caucasian
ethnic group). Modern genetic studies are making a
mockery of the whole idea of racially distinctive
ethnic groups anyway.
An afterthought on Aryan, I wonder if we will have a
move to rename Iran Persia for PC reasons and the the
word Iran is the same word as Aryan.
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