sodgers at hotnet.net.au
Thu Jul 20 12:41:09 EDT 2000
Just because I am curious and you all are a well read group, what do you think of this?
I'm inclined to say - "Wot? Again?"
There are at least two points I think could be easily refuted...
"His will, dictated to a lawyer, makes no mention of a literary legacy and who should inherit it."
I think this one vastly overestimates the value put on plays at that time and in that place. They were useful commercial works, not high-flown literary hymns. Shakespeare's plays were the soapies or cop dramas of their period - they appealed to "common man"...
"Shakspere at best had only a grammar school education, and he is not known to have traveled beyond Stratford and London....through such a sophisticated body of work? Whoever wrote the plays and sonnets had a rare breadth of knowledge in numerous disciplines, including physical sciences, medicine, the law, astronomy, and the Bible."
Having an education he could well have picked up scraps of information from many sources - other plays (he did use old plays and plots), poems, travellers' tales. He may have known the adventurers of the time, and ould certainly have known his Bible... and he made a few howlers in geography anyway!
However, I suppose this will never really be settled. And I suppose further than many people don;t really *want* it settled. They prefer it open to theory.
P.S. There was some odd story a while ago that the Bronté ladies wrote nothing much - their brother it was that did it!
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